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SMSF Allocated earnings calculation

 
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Old 10-11-2008, 08:22 PM   #1 (permalink)
RobertHolmes
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SMSF Allocated earnings calculation

Hi,

I am struggling with this concept. Is it: Portfolio end of period - (Portfolio begining of period + capital applied to Portfolio during period)? That makes intuitive sense, but then I'm not an accountant.

If a parcel was sold during the period (and the proceeds reinvested), does that have any bearing?

Cheers
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Old 10-11-2008, 10:21 PM   #2 (permalink)
Rob G.
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You keep track of two prices, the historical cost and the last period market valuation.

Suppose you have investment A, purchase cost $100, market value at end June 2007 of $150.

Sell on Jan 1st 2008 for $180, and purchase investment B with the proceeds, cost $180.

At end June 2008, B is now worth $200.

Unrealised gains this year is $20 (B yr end value - cost) plus realised gains $30 (A sale - previous yr end value).

Note that your CGT for A will be on the proceeds - cost ($180 - $100), not the opening value !!

You don't have to tax effect this if your SMSF is not a reporting entity - but many Accountants try to make things look complicated and justify their fees.

Cheers,

Rob

Last edited by Rob G. : 10-11-2008 at 10:32 PM. Reason: More info
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Old 11-11-2008, 07:43 AM   #3 (permalink)
RobertHolmes
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Hi Rob,

Thanks for the reply. So in your example would you report the "allocated earnings" (a line on our SMSF return) as $50?
If you have the patience, could you please explain "You don't have to tax effect this if your SMSF is not a reporting entity "? I gather you mean that the after-tax Gain on A is less than $30. Perhaps this is why our operating statement & balance sheet don't agree?

Cheers Robert.
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Old 11-11-2008, 05:28 PM   #4 (permalink)
Rob G.
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Earnings to be allocated to members based on some reasonable basis:

Realised gains this period $30
Unrealised gains this period $20

Tax effect accounting would add a fictitious asset/liability to adjust for future income tax on those unrealised gains - e.g. a future liability for a discount capital gain (1/3) at a tax rate of 15%.

This is required by Accounting Standards, but most SMSF's do not need to meet these standards.

Cheers,

Rob
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Old 11-11-2008, 06:31 PM   #5 (permalink)
RobertHolmes
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Perfect sense

Hi again Rob,

Thank you for your patience & the wonderful explainations. I note that my intuitive formula gives the same result, with your simple example. What if I add a third transaction? Say fund has income of $50 which is used to purchase investment C on Feb 1 & C had a yr end $20 value.

This gives rise to:
A $30 (realised)
B $20 (unrealised) &
C -$30 (unrealised)
Total $20

Again the same result: 220 - (150 + 50) = 20

This approach avoids going through our portfolio "line by line", assuming it's valid.

Cheers Robert
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Old 11-11-2008, 07:12 PM   #6 (permalink)
Rob G.
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Being as a SMSF is an investment vehicle, financial reports must value investment holdings at "market-to-market" to be meaningful, according to the ATO.

This actually means that you must go through your portfolio line-by-line to work out unrealised gains/losses and report them separately from realised gains/losses to give a complete picture.

So in your example, you now have:

Realised gains $30
Unrealised losses -$10

**ALLOCATION**

Each type to be allocated on some reasonable basis, which might be different for each type and even each particular investment.

e.g. suppose C was actually an in-specie contribution from a particular member, and all income/gains/losses for investment C are to be allocated to that member.

e.g. suppose investment C is segregated assets generating exempt pension income to be allocated to a particular pension, whilst the other investments are for accumulation accounts.

If you stuff that up by setting off income against gains & losses you could mis-allocate and lose exempt or complying status !!!

Cheers,

Rob
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