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Capital Loss on Shares
Capital Losses of Shares.
A question to the forum. I have checked this one with my accountant however just want to be doubly sure and see what you guys say. It seems an easy one, however as they say “if it seems too good to be true then it probably is”. The question relates to multiple share purchases this year, selling the shares for capital losses to use in the future, and rebuying the same shares immediately again.
Background information
I am an Australian living and working abroad.
Geared on multiple investment properties in Perth.
Investment properties receive rental income (my only Australian income) and have the usual IP costs.
Expected Annual capital loss this year on IP’s is ~ $5,000 per year
Five (5) years of accumulated capital losses of ~ $30,000.
No plan to sell properties in the near future.
Scenario
I bought 1,000 shares in XYZ at $10 on 1st. Aug 2008. Brokerage fees = $35. Cost = $10,035.
I bought 1,000 shares in XYZ at $ 9 on 1st. Sept 2008. Brokerage fees = $35. Cost = $9,035.
I bought 1,000 shares in XYZ at $ 8 on 1st. Oct 2008. Brokerage fees = $35. Cost = $8,035.
I bought 1,000 shares in XYZ at $ 7 on 1st. Nov 2008. Brokerage fees = $35. Cost = $7,035.
I bought the shares as a long term buy and hold however I am considering selling them all (or some of them) and taking the capital loss and adding it to my capital loss from my IP’s to use against gains in the future. Future income may be in the form of wages when I return to Perth and if/when I sell my IP’s.
Current share price = $6 thus current portfolio value = $24,000. Brokerage fee = $35 if I sell now.
If I sell all XYZ shares the net capital loss would be:
Cost Base – Income Gain = Capital Loss
($10,035 + $9,025 + $8,035 +$7,035) – ($24,000 -$35) = $34,140 - $23,965 = $10,175
I add these capital losses generated from my share sales to those expected from my IP’s this year to get a total annual Capital Loss of $15,175.
I then use the $24,000 from my share sale and buy XYZ shares again straightaway at $6.
The question is …….. yes I have made a loss of $10,175 from my shares however I have bought back in at the same price so no real loss but in the future when I have income or sell the IP’s I can use this $10,175 loss as part of my overall accumulated losses to reduce my tax on the IP sale price or wage income. Thus I could theoretically save up to 48% of this $10,175, ie. $4,782 or lesser amount depending on what tax bracket I am in.
I believe there is no problem taking the Capital Loss and adding it to my previously accumulated Capital Losses, however can I legally buy in to exactly the same share, XYZ, as I have just sold out of simply to take a loss that will save me tax in the future ?
I know it is not nice to realize a loss in my share holdings, however with taking the capital losses now it will reduce my tax in the future, plus I still believe that I want to be invested in the market. Basically taking my losses now will reduce the pain of this depressed market by giving me a tax benefit in the future..
Any comments or advice would be greatly appreciated.
Joe
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Index & Property investor
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